Medical student's note

【Pathology question】General Pathology part 2 DIRECTIONS : Each item below contains a question or incomplete statement followed by suggested responses. Select the one best response to each question. 51. A 9-year-old boy suddenly develops severe testicular pain. He is taken to the emergency room, where he is evaluated and immediately taken to surgery. There his left testis is found to be markedly hemorrhagic due to testicular torsion. This abnormality caused a hemorrhagic testicular infarction because of      a. Arterial occlusion      b. Septic infarction      c. The collateral blood supply of the testis      d. The dual blood supply of the testis      e. Venous occlusion ANS: E Note: Infarcts are localized areas of ischemic coagulative necrosis.  They can be classified on the basis of their color into either red or white infarcts, or by the presence or absence of bacterial contamination into either septic or bland infarcts. White infarcts : pale or anemic infarcts, are usually the res